Sunday, October 25, 2009

Why, then?

There must be a finite number of possibilities. The simplest reason may be the reason Thomas himself gives - that the "moral" considerations belongs to the second part. But for what "strangeness" am i looking for - for one that shows the strangeness of the subject matter or a kind of unique project of Aquinas? I incline towards the former although it is always the latter as well. When you're talking about God - things are all kind of together. You have the knowledge of God - which - opposite to that of the human being, begins from (after ascertaining whether God has knowledge) to knowledge OF God (2 articles) to whether his understanding IS his substance (1) to whether God knows other things (beginning art. 5 - and going to article 16 - so this turns out to be the bulk although it is secondary - becasue God is primary, but our way of knowing God is limited or it is simpler and cannot use much of words even what we undersatnd of it). Even when you talk about ideas (q. 15) they are pointedly about things - many things. Truth is interesting: truth in general - what is it? and where - what kind of intellect - is it? (2 articles) then comparing it to being and to good (2 articles) then asking if God is it (1) and if it is one (1 - in a sense yes and in a sense no).is it eternal (in God yes) immutable (in God yes - in us diferent).Now this conformity may vary in two ways, even as any other likeness, through change in one of the two extremes. Hence in one way truth varies on the part of the intellect, from the fact that a change of opinion occurs about a thing which in itself has not changed, and in another way, when the thing is changed, but not the opinion; and in either way there can be a change from true to false.

Then falsity (does it exist? does it exist i nsense? does it exist in intellect? opposition of true and false) Life of God: (to whom does it belong to live? what is life? properly attributed to God? all things are life in God?) I answer that, In God to live is to understand, as before stated (3). In God intellect, the thing understood, and the act of understanding, are one and the same. Hence whatever is in God as understood is the very living or life of God. Now, wherefore, since all things that have been made by God are in Him as things understood, it follows that all things in Him are the divine lifeitself.
to think that God thinks of me - that i have my life in him!

MY point - that all things are kind of together.... how? Oh yes, because why there ARE any other things - God's knowledge of them makes them to be...

In accordance with this, therefore, it must be said that God has of Himself a speculative knowledge only; for He Himself is not operable. But of all other things He has both speculative and practical knowledge. He has speculative knowledge as regards the mode; for whatever we know speculatively in things by defining and dividing, God knows all this much more perfectly.

Now of things which He can make, but does not make at any time, He has not a practical knowledge, according as knowledge is called practical from the end. But He has a practical knowledge of what He makes in some period of time. And, as regards evilthings, although they are not operable by Him, yet they fall under His practical knowledge, like good things, inasmuch as He permits, or impedes, or directs them; as also sicknesses fall under the practical knowledge of the physician, inasmuch as he cures them by his art.

Except that, so far as it goes, IS INTELLECTIVE. actually the discussions are quite distinct. HERE'S WHERE I WOULD WANT TO COMPARE - GOD's will the cause of things, etc.

Question 19. The will of God

  1. Is there will in God?
  2. Does God will things apart from Himself?
  3. Does God necessarily will whatever He wills?
  4. Is the will of God the cause of things?
  5. Can any cause be assigned to the divine will?
  6. Is the divine will always fulfilled?
  7. Is the will of God mutable?
  8. Does the will of God impose necessity on the things willed?
  9. Is there in God the will of evil?
  10. Does God have free will?
  11. Is the will of expression distinguished in God?
  12. Are five expressions of will rightly assigned to the divine will?

19.4 ad 4

Reply to Objection 4. Even in us the cause of one and the same effect is knowledge as directing it, whereby the form of the work is conceived, and will as commanding it, since the form as it is in the intellect only is not determined to exist or not to existin the effect, except by the will. Hence, the speculative intellect has nothing to say to operation. But the power is cause, asexecuting the effect, since it denotes the immediate principle of operation. But in God all these things are one

19.11

I answer that, Some things are said of God in their strict sense; others by metaphor, as appears from what has been said before (13, 3). When certain human passions are predicated of the Godhead metaphorically, this is done because of a likeness in the effect. Hence a thing that is in us a sign of some passion, is signified metaphorically in God under the name of that passion. Thus with us it is usual for an angry man to punish, so that punishment becomes an expression of anger. Therefore punishment itself is signified by the word anger, when anger is attributed to God. In the same way, what is usually with us an expression ofwill, is sometimes metaphorically called will in God; just as when anyone lays down a precept, it is a sign that he wishes thatprecept obeyed. Hence a divine precept is sometimes called by metaphor the will of God, as in the words: "Thy will be done on earth, as it is in heaven" (Matthew 6:10). There is, however, this difference between will and anger, that anger is neverattributed to God properly, since in its primary meaning it includes passion; whereas will is attributed to Him properly. Therefore in God there are distinguished will in its proper sense, and will as attributed to Him by metaphor. Will in its proper sense is called the will of good pleasure; and will metaphorically taken is the will of expression, inasmuch as the sign itself of will is called will.

19.12

I answer that, By these signs we name the expression of will by which we are accustomed to show that we will something. Aman may show that he wills something, either by himself or by means of another. He may show it by himself, by doing something either directly, or indirectly and accidentally. He shows it directly when he works in his own person; in that way the expression of his will is his own working. He shows it indirectly, by not hindering the doing of a thing; for what removes an impediment is called an accidental mover. In this respect the expression is called permission. He declares his will by means of another when heorders another to perform a work, either by insisting upon it as necessary by precept, and by prohibiting its contrary; or by persuasion, which is a part of counsel. Since in these ways the will of man makes itself known, the same five are sometimes denominated with regard to the divine will, as the expression of that will. That precept, counsel, and prohibition are called thewill of God is clear from the words of Matthew 6:10: "Thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven." That permission and operation are called the will of God is clear from Augustine (Enchiridion 95), who says: "Nothing is done, unless the Almighty wills it to be done, either by permitting it, or by actually doing it."

Or it may be said that permission and operation refer to present time, permission being with respect to evil, operation with regard to good. Whilst as to future time, prohibition is in respect to evil, precept to good that is necessary and counsel to goodthat is of supererogation.

Question 20. God's love

  1. Does love exist in God?
  2. Does He love all things?
  3. Does He love one thing more than another?
  4. Does He love more the better things?

Article 1. Whether love exists in God?

Objection 1. It seems that love does not exist in God. For in God there are no passions. Now love is a passion. Therefore love is not in God.

Objection 2. Further, love, anger, sorrow and the like, are mutually divided against one another. But sorrow and anger are notattributed to God, unless by metaphor. Therefore neither is love attributed to Him.

Objection 3. Further, Dionysius says (Div. Nom. iv): "Love is a uniting and binding force." But this cannot take place in God, since He is simple. Therefore love does not exist in God.

On the contrary, It is written: "God is love" (John 4:16).

I answer that, We must needs assert that in God there is love: because love is the first movement of the will and of everyappetitive faculty. For since the acts of the will and of every appetitive faculty tend towards good and evil, as to their proper objects: and since good is essentially and especially the object of the will and the appetite, whereas evil is only the object secondarily and indirectly, as opposed to good; it follows that the acts of the will and appetite that regard good must naturallybe prior to those that regard evil; thus, for instance, joy is prior to sorrow, love to hate: because what exists of itself is always prior to that which exists through another. Again, the more universal is naturally prior to what is less so. Hence the intellect is first directed to universal truth; and in the second place to particular and special truths. Now there are certain acts of the willand appetite that regard good under some special condition, as joy and delight regard good present and possessed; whereas desire and hope regard good not as yet possessed. Love, however, regards good universally, whether possessed or not. Hencelove is naturally the first act of the will and appetite; for which reason all the other appetite movements presuppose love, as their root and origin. For nobody desires anything nor rejoices in anything, except as a good that is loved: nor is anything an object of hate except as opposed to the object of love. Similarly, it is clear that sorrow, and other things like to it, must be referred to love as to their first principle. Hence, in whomsoever there is will and appetite, there must also be love: since if the first is wanting, all that follows is also wanting. Now it has been shown that will is in God (19, 1), and hence we must attributelove to Him.

Reply to Objection 1. The cognitive faculty does not move except through the medium of the appetitive: and just as in ourselves the universal reason moves through the medium of the particular reason, as stated in De Anima iii, 58,75, so in ourselves the intellectual appetite, or the will as it is called, moves through the medium of the sensitive appetite. Hence, in us the sensitive appetite is the proximate motive-force of our bodies. Some bodily change therefore always accompanies an act of the sensitive appetite, and this change affects especially the heart, which, as the Philosopher says (De part. animal. iii, 4), is the first principle of movement in animals. Therefore acts of the sensitive appetite, inasmuch as they have annexed to them some bodily change, are called passions; whereas acts of the will are not so called. Love, therefore, and joy and delight arepassions; in so far as they denote acts of the intellective appetite, they are not passions. It is in this latter sense that they are in God. Hence the Philosopher says (Ethic. vii): "God rejoices by an operation that is one and simple," and for the same reason He loves without passion.

Reply to Objection 2. In the passions of the sensitive appetite there may be distinguished a certain material element--namely, the bodily change--and a certain formal element, which is on the part of the appetite. Thus in anger, as the Philosopher says (De Anima iii, 15,63,64), the material element is the kindling of the blood about the heart; but the formal, the appetite for revenge. Again, as regards the formal element of certain passions a certain imperfection is implied, as in desire, which is of thegood we have not, and in sorrow, which is about the evil we have. This applies also to anger, which supposes sorrow. Certainother passions, however, as love and joy, imply no imperfection. Since therefore none of these can be attributed to God on their material side, as has been said (ad 1); neither can those that even on their formal side imply imperfection be attributed to Him; except metaphorically, and from likeness of effects, as already show (3, 2, ad 2; 19, 11). Whereas, those that do not imply imperfection, such as love and joy, can be properly predicated of God, though without attributing passion to Him, as said before (19, 11).

Reply to Objection 3. An act of love always tends towards two things; to the good that one wills, and to the person for whom one wills it: since to love a person is to wish that person good. Hence, inasmuch as we love ourselves, we wish ourselves good; and, so far as possible, union with that good. So love is called the unitive force, even in God, yet without implying composition; for the good that He wills for Himself, is no other than Himself, Who is good by His essence, as above shown (6, 1, 3). And by the fact that anyone loves another, he wills good to that other. Thus he puts the other, as it were, in the place of himself; and regards the good done to him as done to himself. So far love is a binding force, since it aggregates another to ourselves, and refers his good to our own. And then again the divine love is a binding force, inasmuch as God wills good to others; yet it implies no composition in God.

Article 2 -I answer that, God loves all existing things. For all existing things, in so far as they exist, are good, since the existence of a thing is itself a good; and likewise, whatever perfection it possesses. Now it has been shown above (Question 19, Article 4) thatGod's will is the cause of all things. It must needs be, therefore, that a thing has existence, or any kind of good, only inasmuch as it is willed by God. To every existing thing, then, God wills some good. Hence, since to love anything is nothing else than towill good to that thing, it is manifest that God loves everything that exists. Yet not as we love. Because since our will is not thecause of the goodness of things, but is moved by it as by its object, our love, whereby we will good to anything, is not thecause of its goodness; but conversely its goodness, whether real or imaginary, calls forth our love, by which we will that it should preserve the good it has, and receive besides the good it has not, and to this end we direct our actions: whereas thelove of God infuses and creates goodness.

STILL WE'RE TALING ABOUT OTHER THINGS MOSTLY AFTER WE FIGURE OUT - but again - we know that everything is one in GOd and all things are by God's life, etc. so it doesn't make a difference - and actually this does follow the pattern of the whole summa - the Prima Pars is about God - but about everything coming from and returning to him - the whole thing is about God - all things are in God (not in a pantheistic but in all the other ways).

Question 21. The justice and mercy of God

  1. Is there justice in God?
  2. Can His justice be called truth?
  3. Is there mercy in God?
  4. Are justice and mercy in every work of God?
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So in a way all things are one in God and in a way they aren't. But you see what a LONG, LONG way we have to go to get to love, to justice, to mercy!! compare with God:
OPERATIONS (INTELLECT): God's knowledge (14). The ideas (15), which exist in His knowledge. Truth (16) in God, for knowledge is of things that are true. Falsity (17) in God. The life of God (18), since to understand belongs to living beings.
OPERATIONS (WILL): God's will (19). In our own wills we find both the passions (such as joy and love), and the habits of the moral virtues (such as justice and fortitude). Hence we shall first consider the love (20) of God, and secondly His justice and mercy (21).
OPERATIONS (INTELLECT AND WILL): Providence (22), in respect to all created things; for in the science of morals, after the moral virtues themselves, comes the consideration of prudence, to which providence belongs. Predestination (23) and the book of life (24).
POWER: The power of God (25), the principle of the divine operation as proceeding to the exterior effect. The divine beatitude (26)

Why did he separate appetitive from apprhensive again?
Is there an answer to this question? Yes - but I'll have to find it in the text. There must be something SIMPLER about the intellect, that makes it possible to deal with in a short period of time - although ti is infinite in a way "can become all things" in another way, the relationships with other things come about through the appetitive - again - that part - the cognitive doesn't work without the appetitive...

GOING NOW TO RESEARCH APPETITIVE - I THINK THE ANSWER WILL BE THERE - look generically, angels - etc. TRYING TO FIND THAT PLACE WEHRE THE DISTINCTION IS THAT THE APPETITIVE IS DIST. FROM THE INTELLECT IN THAT IT INVOLVES A MOVEMENT!!!


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